I didn’t claim the NIV is “the standard for interpretation.” I said that the NIV is the Bible I used to examine what Jesus had to say about “hell.” We could use other translations. The KJV, NKJV, NRSV, and so on are all there too. I used the NIV because it is a widely read translation and so that particular text and that particular translation is influential in that regard. The KJV would also be a very influential version to look at. Either way, as far as Jesus is concerned, all the translations render the word “hell.” None of them say “geenna,” which is why so many people actually use the word “hell” and basically nobody uses the word “geenna.”

How would your interpretation change if you used Rotherham’s Emphasized Bible, Young’s Literal Version, or indeed just a regular interlinear Greek-English Bible, like The Greek-English Interlinear New Testament by Robert K. Brown and Philip W. Comfort (which, to be fair, translates geenna both as “Gehenna” and “hell”)?